Submitted by Simon Beck (London - England)
thunder and lightning
thunder and lightning
Why do we always say them in this order? As my wife commented, we see the lightning before we hear the thunder, so why isn't it "lightning and thunder"?.
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thunder and lightning
Isn't there a natural rhythm to many of these non-reversible couplets? Or do they sound so natural merely because we're accustomed to the usual order? Jerry and Tom, Joan and Derby, span-and-spick, I and the King, ready-and-rough, toity-hoity - Dreadful. We can't allow just any Dick, Tom and Harry to establish a new order.
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Reply from Edwin Ashworth (Oldham - England)
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thunder and lightning
Well, they did in "Kiss Me Kate," I believe!
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Reply from Leif Thorvaldson (Eatonville - U.S.A.)
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Re: thunder and lightning
I think so!Archived Reply wrote: ↑Thu Oct 21, 2004 11:46 am Isn't there a natural rhythm to many of these non-reversible couplets?
It is the rhythm!
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Btw: Nobody in Germany ever says: "Donner und Blitzen!"

Re: thunder and lightning
It's not just the rhythm, because some of Edwin's inversions preserve the same rhythm as was present in the original (e.g. toity-hoity, span-and-spick).Dunkeld wrote: ↑Sun Dec 15, 2019 2:52 pmI think so!Archived Reply wrote: ↑Thu Oct 21, 2004 11:46 amIsn't there a natural rhythm to many of these non-reversible couplets?
It is the rhythm!
Having said that, I don't have an alternative theory besides the suggestion that the original coinage has the advantage of greater familiarity and will therefore tend to be preserved if most people find it euphonious. Otherwise, I can't see any reason for the set phrase cited by the original poster (thunder and lightning) to be preferred over lightning and thunder, for instance.
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